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Physical Science Final

True/False
Place a check by each element that forms diatomic molecules and is not found in nature as single atoms.
 

1. 
Bromine
 

2. 
Cesium
 

3. 
Chlorine
 

4. 
Helium
 

5. 
Iodine
 

6. 
Hydrogen
 

7. 
Nitrogen
 

8. 
Oxygen
 

9. 
Carbon
 

10. 
Xenon
 

11. 
Neon
 

12. 
Fluorine
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

13. 
Matter is defined as anything that
a.
can be seen and touched.
c.
can be weighed.
b.
has mass and takes up space.
d.
contains kinetic or potential energy.
 

14. 
A substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances is
a.
a compound.
c.
an element.
b.
a mixture.
d.
an atom.
 

15. 
The chemical formula for water, H2O, means that each water molecule contains
a.
two hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms.
b.
two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom.
c.
two hydrogen atoms and zero oxygen atoms.
d.
one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms.
 

16. 
The science of what matter is made of and how it changes is called
a.
chemistry.
c.
kinetics.
b.
physics.
d.
engineering.
 

17. 
The chemical symbol for sulfuric acid is H2SO4. How many atoms are contained in each molecule of sulfuric acid?
a.
3
c.
6
b.
5
d.
7
 

18. 
The chemical formula for table sugar is C12H22O11. How many oxygen atoms are in each sugar molecule?
a.
2
c.
12
b.
11
d.
22
 

19. 
Which state of matter will hold its shape without a container?
a.
solid
c.
gas
b.
liquid
d.
plasma
 

20. 
The change of a substance from a solid directly to a gas is called
a.
condensation.
c.
melting.
b.
evaporation.
d.
sublimation.
 

21. 
All changes of the state of matter require
a.
water.
c.
energy.
b.
vibration.
d.
sublimation.
 

22. 
Evaporation refers to the change of state from a
a.
liquid to a gas.
c.
solid to a liquid.
b.
gas to a liquid.
d.
liquid to a solid.
 

23. 
The law of conservation of mass states that mass cannot be
a.
burned.
c.
created or destroyed.
b.
changed in form.
d.
heated or cooled.
 

24. 
A liquid changes rapidly into a gas at the liquid's
a.
boiling point.
c.
melting point.
b.
freezing point.
d.
condensation point.
 

25. 
Which statement about the atomic nucleus is correct?
a.
The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a negative charge.
b.
The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a positive charge.
c.
The nucleus is made of electrons and has a positive charge.
d.
The nucleus is made of electrons and has a negative charge.
 

26. 
The charge of an electron is
a.
–2
c.
0
b.
–1
d.
+1
 

27. 
Atoms have no electric charge because they
a.
have an equal number of charged and noncharged particles.
b.
have neutrons in their nuclei.
c.
have an equal number of electrons and protons.
d.
have an equal number of neutrons and protons.
 

28. 
According to Bohr's model of the atom, electrons behave like
a.
planets orbiting the sun.
c.
light energy in a vacuum.
b.
waves on a vibrating string.
d.
planets rotating on their axes.
 

29. 
According to modern atomic theory, it is nearly impossible to determine an electron's exact
a.
color.
c.
charge
b.
position.
d.
mass.
 

30. 
The order of elements in the periodic table is based on
a.
the number of protons in the nucleus.
c.
the number of neutrons in the nucleus.
b.
the electric charge of the nucleus.
d.
atomic mass.
 

31. 
Atoms of elements that are in the same group have the same number of
a.
protons.
c.
valence electrons.
b.
neutrons.
d.
protons and neutrons.
 

32. 
Valence electrons determine an atom's
a.
mass.
c.
electric charge.
b.
chemical properties.
d.
period.
 

33. 
Oxygen has atomic number 8. This means that an oxygen atom has
a.
eight neutrons in its nucleus.
c.
eight protons in its nucleus.
b.
a total of eight protons and neutrons.
d.
a total of eight neutrons and electrons.
 

34. 
An atom's mass number equals the number of
a.
protons plus the number of electrons.
c.
protons.
b.
protons plus the number of neutrons.
d.
neutrons.
 

35. 
Which of the following elements is an alkali metal?
a.
calcium
c.
mercury
b.
magnesium
d.
sodium
 

36. 
Alkali metals are extremely reactive because they
a.
have very small atomic masses.
b.
are not solids at room temperature.
c.
have one valence electron that is easily removed to form a positive ion.
d.
have two valence electrons that form compounds with calcium and magnesium.
 

37. 
Semiconductors are elements that
a.
have large atomic masses but small atomic numbers.
b.
do not form compounds.
c.
can conduct heat and electricity under certain conditions.
d.
are extremely hard.
 

38. 
Group 18 noble gases are inert because
a.
they readily form positive ions.
b.
they can have either a positive or a negative charge.
c.
their outermost energy level is missing one electron.
d.
their outermost energy level is full.
 

39. 
Carbon and other nonmetals are found in which area of the periodic table?
a.
On the left-most side.
b.
On the right side.
c.
In the middle column of the periodic table.
d.
In the bottom rows.
 

40. 
A mole is an SI base unit that describes the
a.
mass of a substance.
c.
volume of a substance.
b.
amount of a substance.
d.
electric charge of a substance.
 

41. 
Avogadro's constant is defined as the number of particles in
a.
one mole of a pure substance.
c.
one gram of a pure substance.
b.
one liter of a pure substance.
d.
one kilogram of a pure substance.
 

42. 
The average atomic mass of potassium is approximately 39 amu. What is the mass of 2.0 mol of potassium?
a.
0.39 g
c.
39 g
b.
0.78 g
d.
78 g
 

43. 
The average atomic mass of the element cesium is approximately 133 amu. What is the mass of 3.00 mol of cesium?
a.
0.133 g
c.
266 g
b.
133 g
d.
399 g
 

44. 
You have 6.50 mol of chromium, which has a molar mass of approximately 52 g/mol. What is the mass in grams of this amount of chromium?
a.
3.38 g
c.
338 g
b.
33.8 g
d.
3.38 kg
 

45. 
What is the mass in grams of 0.75 mol of sulfur, which has a molar mass of approximately 32 g/mol?
a.
16 g
c.
32 g
b.
24 g
d.
240 g
 

46. 
Each molecule of hydrochloric acid, HCl, contains one atom of hydrogen and
a.
one atom of chlorine.
c.
two atoms of chlorine.
b.
one atom of oxygen.
d.
two atoms of oxygen.
 

47. 
In which substance do the molecules have the strongest attractions to one another?
a.
sugar, a solid
c.
sulfuric acid, a liquid
b.
hydrogen, a gas
d.
water, a liquid
 

48. 
Gases take up a lot of space because
a.
they have weak chemical bonds.
b.
their molecules have very little attraction for one another.
c.
they contain very few atoms.
d.
they have a small molar mass.
 

49. 
The bonds that hold atoms together behave most like
a.
snap-together blocks.
c.
rubber cement.
b.
glue.
d.
flexible springs.
 

50. 
An ionic bond is a bond that forms between
a.
ions with opposite charges.
b.
atoms with neutral charges.
c.
one atom's nucleus and another atom's electrons.
d.
the electrons of two different atoms.
 

51. 
Covalent bonds are formed between
a.
ions.
c.
nonmetal atoms.
b.
metal atoms.
d.
compounds.
 

52. 
Copper is a good conductor of electricity because its electrons
a.
are positively charged.
b.
are free to move from atom to atom.
c.
can take on either positive or negative charges.
d.
are shared between neighboring compounds.
 

53. 
In which type of bond do atoms share electrons?
a.
covalent bonds
c.
ionic bonds
b.
metallic bonds
d.
polyatomic bonds
 

54. 
The name dinitrogen tetroxide tells you that this compound contains
a.
two nitrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms.
b.
four nitrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms.
c.
two nitrogen atoms and four oxygen atoms.
d.
four nitrogen atoms and four oxygen atoms.
 

55. 
Fe2O3 is named iron(III) oxide because it contains
a.
three oxygen atoms.
c.
three iron atoms.
b.
Fe3+ ions.
d.
O3+ ions.
 

56. 
When copper combines with oxygen to form copper(II) oxide, the charge of the copper ion is
a.
Cu1+.
c.
Cu3+.
b.
Cu2+.
d.
Cu4+.
 

57. 
When nickel combines with fluorine to form nickel(III) fluoride, the charge of the nickel ion is
a.
Ni1+.
c.
Ni3+.
b.
Ni2+.
d.
Ni4+.
 

58. 
Polymers are large organic molecules that are made of
a.
cations.
c.
carbon and oxygen only.
b.
anions.
d.
repeating units.
 

59. 
A change in color, such as rusting of metal, is a sign that
a.
a chemical change is taking place.
c.
oxygen is present.
b.
a physical change has just occurred.
d.
organic chemicals are present.
 

60. 
What happens in a chemical reaction?
a.
Atoms are destroyed.
c.
Atoms are heated and cooled.
b.
Atoms are created.
d.
Atoms are rearranged.
 

61. 
In an exothermic reaction, energy is transferred from
a.
the reactants to the surroundings.
c.
one reactant to another.
b.
the surroundings to the reactants.
d.
the container to the chemicals.
 

62. 
A synthesis reaction is a reaction between at least two compounds in which
a.
one breaks down into at least two products.
b.
a compound is decomposed by an electric current.
c.
a compound burns in the presence of oxygen.
d.
a new, more complex compound is formed.
 

63. 
Which of the following is an example of a decomposition reaction?
a.
photosynthesis
b.
digestion
c.
respiration
d.
exchange of ions between two compounds
 

64. 
A chemical equation is balanced by changing or adding
a.
chemical symbols.
c.
coefficients.
b.
subscripts.
d.
reactants.
 

65. 
In the reaction 2H2O ® 2H2 + O2, if you start with 2 mol of water, how many moles of hydrogen gas are produced?
a.
1 mol
c.
3 mol
b.
2 mol
d.
4 mol
 

66. 
If you start with 5 mol of O2 in the reaction 2Mg + O2 ® 2MgO, how many moles of Mg will you need?
a.
4 mol
c.
8 mol
b.
5 mol
d.
10 mol
 

67. 
In the reaction 2Mg + O2 ® 2MgO, the law of definite proportions states that for every 2 moles of Mg you will need how many moles of O2?
a.
1 mol
c.
3 mol
b.
2 mol
d.
4 mol
 

68. 
In a balanced chemical reaction, the total mass of the products always equals the
a.
molar mass of the reactants.
c.
total mass of the reactants.
b.
atomic mass of the reactants.
d.
proportional masses of the reactants.
 

69. 
All of the following factors may speed up a chemical reaction except
a.
smaller surface area.
c.
higher temperature.
b.
higher pressure.
d.
presence of a catalyst.
 

70. 
The distance traveled by an object divided by the time it takes to travel that distance is called
a.
average velocity.
c.
average acceleration.
b.
average speed.
d.
activity.
 

71. 
In order to determine speed, you must know
a.
time.
c.
both a and b.
b.
distance.
d.
neither a nor b.
 

72. 
What is the speed of an object at rest?
a.
15 km/h
b.
0 km/h
c.
1 km/h
d.
This cannot be determined without further information.
 

73. 
The difference between speed and velocity is that velocity includes
a.
direction.
c.
time.
b.
distance.
d.
weight.
 

74. 
An airplane is flying at 635 km per hour at an altitude of 35 000 m. It is currently over Kansas and is approximately 16 minutes ahead of its scheduled arrival time. What is its velocity?
a.
635 km/h
b.
16 m/min
c.
35 000 m/s
d.
This cannot be determined without further information about its direction.
 

75. 
Which of the following does not indicate velocity?
a.
14 m/s SSE
b.
40 km/h toward the town square along the main street
c.
80 km/h going from New York toward New Jersey
d.
28 km from Los Angeles to Catalina Island
 

76. 
Which of the following is not a factor in calculating momentum?
a.
mass
c.
acceleration
b.
direction
d.
speed
 

77. 
If you divide momentum by velocity, the result is the value of the object’s
a.
mass.
c.
energy.
b.
direction.
d.
speed.
 

78. 
Whenever an object is standing still, the value(s) that is/are always zero is/are
a.
speed.
c.
momentum.
b.
velocity.
d.
all of the above.
 

79. 
A 10.0 kg dog chasing a rabbit north at 6.0 m/s has a momentum of
a.
0.6 kg•m/s.
c.
60.0 m/s.
b.
60.0 kg•m/s north.
d.
60.0 kg/s.
 

80. 
Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity divided by
a.
speed.
c.
time.
b.
final velocity.
d.
distance.
 

81. 
The SI unit for acceleration is
a.
mph.
c.
m/s2.
b.
ft/sec2.
d.
Dv ¸ t.
 

82. 
When the velocity of an object changes, it is acted upon by a(n)
a.
force.
c.
momentum.
b.
inertia.
d.
deceleration.
 

83. 
If the net force acting on a stationary object is zero, then the object will
a.
accelerate in the direction of the strongest force.
b.
remain at rest.
c.
begin moving backwards.
d.
decelerate at a steady rate of speed.
 

84. 
Which of the following best illustrates balanced forces?
a.
a rock falling to the ground
b.
a stretched rubber band being held between two hands
c.
a person lifting a heavy box off of the ground
d.
a crash between a large truck and a train
 

85. 
Friction is defined as
a.
force that opposes motion between two surfaces that are touching.
b.
rate at which velocity changes.
c.
resistance of an object to a change in its velocity.
d.
speed of an object in a particular direction.
 

86. 
Which of the following situations best demonstrates the effects of friction?
a.
a parachutist descending to the ground
c.
an apple falling from a tree
b.
a loaded slingshot
d.
two trucks colliding
 

87. 
When objects are moved further apart from each other, the force of gravity
a.
increases.
c.
decreases.
b.
stays the same.
d.
decreases at first and then increases.
 

88. 
The law that states that every object maintains constant velocity unless acted on by an unbalanced force is
a.
Newton’s first law of motion.
c.
Newton’s third law of motion.
b.
Newton’s second law of motion.
d.
the law of conservation of momentum.
 

89. 
The law that states that for every action force there is an equal and opposite reaction force is
a.
Newton’s first law of motion.
c.
Newton’s third law of motion.
b.
Newton’s second law of motion.
d.
the law of conservation of momentum.
 

90. 
The law that states that the unbalanced force acting on an object equals the object’s mass times its acceleration is
a.
Newton’s first law of motion.
c.
Newton’s third law of motion.
b.
Newton’s second law of motion.
d.
the law of conservation of momentum.
 

91. 
The SI unit of force, named for the scientist who described the relationship between motion and force, is called the
a.
newton.
c.
curie.
b.
einstein.
d.
pasteur.
 

92. 
Which of the following units is used to measure acceleration in free fall?
a.
m/s
c.
m/s2
b.
m·s
d.
m2/s2
 

93. 
When air resistance balances the weight of an object that is falling, the velocity
a.
slowly decreases.
c.
rapidly increases.
b.
remains constant.
d.
none of the above.
 

94. 
A boy pushes on a parked car with a force of 200 N. The car does not move. How much work does the boy do on the car?
a.
200 N
c.
zero
b.
200 J
d.
can't be determined
 

95. 
What are the units of work?
a.
J
c.
kg•m2/s2
b.
N•m
d.
all of the above
 

96. 
What are the units of power?
a.
watts
c.
joules per second
b.
horsepower
d.
all of the above
 

97. 
What is the mechanical advantage of a ramp that is 10 meters long and 2 meters high?
a.
20
c.
8
b.
5
d.
15
 

98. 
A machine is a device that
a.
requires less work to do a given task.
b.
decreases the amount of work done by a given force.
c.
increases energy.
d.
can multiply and change the direction of an input force.
 

99. 
What is the mechanical advantage of a single fixed pulley?
a.
1
c.
2
b.
1.5
d.
3
 

100. 
Which of the following is an example of a wheel and axle?
a.
a block and tackle
c.
a screwdriver
b.
a pulley
d.
a nutcracker
 

101. 
Gravitational potential energy depends on the ____
a.
the mass of the object.
c.
the acceleration due to gravity.
b.
the height of the object.
d.
All of the above
 

102. 
Which of the following is an example of mechanical energy?
a.
nuclear energy
c.
potential energy
b.
chemical energy
d.
light energy
 

103. 
The law of conservation of energy states that
a.
the energy of a system can disappear.
b.
it is impossible to make a perpetual motion machine.
c.
energy cannot change form.
d.
energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
 

Matching
Match each of the following terms.
 
 
Match the following:
a.
semfinal_files/i1070000.jpg
e.
Pulley
b.
J
f.
stored energy
c.
W
g.
energy of motion
d.
Mechanical Advantage
h.
efficiency
 

104. 
Energy
 

105. 
Same as joules
 

106. 
Force in vs Force out
 

107. 
Potential energy
 

108. 
simple machine
 

109. 
Kinetic energy
 

110. 
Power
 

111. 
Work in vs work out
 

Short Answer
Label each compound as covalent or ionic.
 

112. 
semfinal_files/i1170000.jpg ________________________________
 

113. 
semfinal_files/i1180000.jpg ________________________________
 

114. 
semfinal_files/i1190000.jpg _________________________________
 

115. 
semfinal_files/i1200000.jpg ______________________________
 

Problem
Complete each problem below. When calculations are required, show all your work. This includes the formula used, plug in the numbers WITH UNITS, cancel out anything that can cancel, and box your answer with the correct number of significant figures. Formulas that may be used in this section are listed below.

semfinal_files/i1210000.jpg            semfinal_files/i1210001.jpg            semfinal_files/i1210002.jpg            semfinal_files/i1210003.jpg            semfinal_files/i1210004.jpg


semfinal_files/i1210005.jpg            semfinal_files/i1210006.jpg            semfinal_files/i1210007.jpg            semfinal_files/i1210008.jpg

For Levers, semfinal_files/i1210009.jpg            For Inclined Planes, semfinal_files/i1210010.jpg


For levers, semfinal_files/i1210011.jpg

For Inclined Planes, semfinal_files/i1210012.jpg
 

116. 
If you have a sample of 97.5g Co, how many moles of Co do you have?
 

117. 
During an experiment, you have calculated that you have 5.4 moles of Si. How many grams of Si do you have?
 

118. 
In a reaction that occurs in combustion engines, nitric oxide (NO) reacts with Oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide (NO2). Write the balanced equation:
 

119. 
Aluminum reacts with Iron(III) oxide to form Iron and Aluminum oxide. Write the balanced equation.





What type of reaction is this?
 

120. 
Uranium reacts with fluorine gas to form Uranium(VI) fluoride. Write the balanced reaction.




What type of reaction is this?
 

121. 
Sodium chloride reacts with Fluorine to form sodium fluoride and chlorine gas. Write the balanced equation.
 

122. 
When heated mercury(II) oxide decomposes to Hg and oxygen gas (in 1774, this reaction was used to prove the existance of oxygen). Write the balanced equation.
 

123. 
Antimony(V) chloride reacts with potassium iodide to form potassium chloride, iodine and antimony(III) chloride. Write the balanced reaction.
 

124. 
Ammonium dichromate (NH4)2Cr2O7 decomposes to form chromium(III) oxide, nitrogen gas, and water. Write the balanced equation.



(Extra Credit) How many moles of H2O are formed from 1 mole of ammonium dichromate?
 

125. 
Write out (in english) the following chemical equation:
semfinal_files/i1310000.jpg
 

126. 
A car travels 1,534 miles in 56.4 hours. What was the car's average speed?
 

127. 
A man drops a penny from the a tall building. If the penny hits the ground 4.8 s later, what was the speed of the penny when it hit the ground? (Assume no air resistance).     
 

128. 
A train with a mass of 27,000 kg is traveling on a curved track heading west when it encounters a strong west wind. The wind blows a tumbleweed in front of the train. The train runs over the tumbleweed (with a mass of .5 kg) and continues on towards the west. If the train is traveling at a velocity of 27 m/s west, what is the train's momentum?
 

129. 
A slug was sliming along a sidewalk at a speed of 6.6cm/hr. The slug knew if it didn't get to the wet grass, it would dry up into a crunchy little ball. If it took the slug .76 hours to get to the grass, how far did the slug travel?
 

130. 
How much Force would be required to accelerate a 45,400 kg elephant at 4.4m/s2?
 

131. 
How much would you weigh on Earth if your mass was 212 kg?
 

132. 
A train traveled from Los Angeles to Boston (a distance of 4,877 miles) in 92 hours. What was the trains average speed?
 

133. 
A cat jumps off a building. If the cat lands on its feet 7.2 seconds later, what was the speed of the cat just before it hit the ground (assume no aire resistance).
 

134. 
A boat with a mass of 54,800kg is traveling from Los Angeles to Hawaii (heading west) on the Pacific Ocean, which is the largest ocean in the world. The wind is blowing due east at 14 mph, and flying fish with a mass of 1.4kg occassionally fly into the boat with a speed of 3.2 mph. The ship itself is moving at a speed of 7.8 m/s. What was the ship's momentum?
 

135. 
A bus with a mass of 45,000kg moving at 12m/s slams on its brakes and comes to a stop 4.9s later. What was the acceleration of the bus?
 

136. 
A worm decides to stroll across a sidewalk during a rainstorm. It took the worm 24 minutes to go across the sidewalk at an average speed of 8.5cm/minute. How wide was the sidewalk?
 

137. 
A weightlifter lifts a barbell weighing 500N to a height of 2m. How much work was done?     
 

138. 
An ant pushing a seed does .056J of work on the seed which weighs .0035N. How far did the ant push the object?
 

139. 
A carpenter carries a board with a force of 75N for a distance of 20m in 2.65s. What is the power at which the carpenter carries the board?
 

140. 
A girl does 37J of work with power of 27W. How long did the girl work?
 

141. 
If you weigh 150.0 lbs, how much work must you do to climb stairs that are 12.0m high? (1.00 lb = 4.45N).
 

142. 
What is the mechanical advantage of a lever with a effort arm length of 5.7m and a resistant arm length of 2.0m?


If you input 27N of force on the effort arm, how much force would be applied to the resistant arm?
 

143. 
A skydiver falling through the air at 42m/s weighs 155kg. What is the skydiver's kinetic energy?
 

144. 
A rock on the edge of the Grand Canyon has a mass of 4,500kg and is 1,800m above the bottom of the canyon. What is the rock's gravitational potential energy? (Show your answer using scientific notation.)
 

Other
Write the correct formula.
 

145. 
What is the chemical formula for the compound Copper (III) Oxide octahydrate?
 



 
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